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Luke 8:20

Luke 8:20

“`html An Exegetical Study of Luke 8:20: Grammatical Implications of the Singular Passive Verb ἀπηγγέλη and Textual Variants body { font-family: ‘Palatino Linotype’, ‘Book Antiqua’, Palatino, serif; line-height: 1.6; margin: 20px; } h1, h2, h3 { color: #333; } h2 { border-bottom: 1px solid #ccc; padding-bottom: 5px; margin-top: 30px; } h3 { color: #555; margin-top:…

Acts 15:11

New Testament • Re: Acts 15:11

Thank you, for answers. I’ve met in christianity teaching: once saved, always saved (in sense: believe in Jesus and you will be saved instantly). I thougt that this text may be bear out so teaching. But the words of Jonathan are important: “It’s not telling us when this salvation occurs, it’s telling us that it can occur by the grace of Jesus Christ, without circumcision, for both Jews and Greeks.”
Thanks
Jarek Romanowski

Statistics: Posted by romanjaro — March 24th, 2017, 2:43 pm


Romans 1:23

New Testament • Re: Romans 1:23
ronsnider1 wrote:
My question relates to how one understands and classifies the genitive string in Romans 1:23 that follows the en clause. The entire phrase relates to that which was exchanged for the glory of the incorruptible God, but I am having a little trouble identifying the type of genitives used here.

καὶ ἤλλαξαν τὴν δόξαν τοῦ ἀφθάρτου θεοῦ ἐν ὁμοιώματι εἰκόνος φθαρτοῦ ἀνθρώπου καὶ πετεινῶν καὶ τετραπόδων καὶ ἑρπετῶν.

It’s pretty clear, I’d say, that εἰκόνος depends upon ὁμοιώματι and that φθαρτοῦ ἀνθρώπου καὶ πετεινῶν καὶ τετραπόδων καὶ ἑρπετῶν all depend upon εἰκόνος. I would think too that φθαρτοῦ, although linked directly with ἀνθρώπου, is implicitly understood also with the other genitive nouns as well. The four genitive nouns dependent on εἰκόνος all fall under the most basic category of adnominal genitives, whether you call it “possessive” or “genitive of belonging”. Categorizing the adnominal linkage of εικόνος to ὁμοιώματι is perhaps less clearcut (if it really matters — the meaning of the phrase is hardly in doubt!); I think I’d call it an “appositive” or “explanatory” genitive (cf. Smyth, §1322): “a likeness, i.e. an image of … “.

Statistics: Posted by cwconrad — January 30th, 2014, 11:08 am


Ephesians 2:12

New Testament • Re: Ephesians 2:12

Mr. Conrad,

I tend to agree with you.

Added to that is that Paul calls what is happening a “mystery.” The 10 Northern Tribes being brought back into the “fold” (2 sticks becoming one, Ezekiel 37) would not have been a mystery since their Scriptures clearly expressed what would happen.

Thank you for the response. I appreciate it.

Dustin Curlee

Statistics: Posted by dcurlee — December 21st, 2013, 5:17 pm


Philippians 4:10

New Testament • Re: Phil.4:10 Why is ἠκαιρεῖσθε middle here?
Stephen Hughes wrote:

Philippians 4:10 wrote:Ἐχάρην δὲ ἐν κυρίῳ μεγάλως, ὅτι ἤδη ποτὲ ἀνεθάλετε τὸ ὑπὲρ ἐμοῦ φρονεῖν· ἐφ’ ᾧ καὶ ἐφρονεῖτε, ἠκαιρεῖσθε δέ.

What explanation can be put forward to describe why ἠκαιρεῖσθε is in the middle voice here?

[The antonym‎ εὐκαιρεῖν is used in the active voice, both absolutely ἐλεύσεται δὲ ὅταν εὐκαιρήσῃ. (1 Corinthians 16:12), and in conjunction with an infinitive οὐδὲ φαγεῖν εὐκαίρουν. (Mark 6:31).]

I’ve noted Mike’s comment and the further elaboration Stephen has offered. I think Mke is right here to say we’d have a better notion if we had more instances of the verb’s usage, but DGE (see Logeion) offers additional support for middle-passive usage;
it’s also the case that we don’t have much doubt about what Paul is saying in this rather informally-phrased locution: “Your impulsive thoughtfulness on my behalf has deeply gratified me — the fact that you wanted to do something but had no opportunity.” It seems to me that ἠκαιρεῖσθε here is a personal usage involving deprivation: Subject-affectedness is discerned and expressed in the middle voice here.

Statistics: Posted by cwconrad — March 18th, 2017, 8:44 am


Luke 9:13

New Testament • εἰ μήτι with the subjunctive (Lk 9:13)

Could this be legitimately translated as a question? εἰ μήτι πορευθέντες ἡμεῖς ἀγοράσωμεν εἰς πάντα τὸν λαὸν τοῦτον βρώματα. Trans: Unless we go, can we buy food for all these people? Luke 9:13 Thanks, MMStatistics: Posted by monte.mackey — Decem…

Acts 13:46

New Testament • Re: Acts 13:46b D Bezae
Stephen Carlson wrote:

cwconrad wrote:At any rate, the likelihood of the sense intended in the proposed Englishing of this text in Codex Bezae seems low to me; I still find it easier to think that ἀναγκαῖον was negligently omitted by the scribe.

The theory of the text of Acts that Rius-Camps & Read-Heimerdinger follow is that the Codex Bezae D text of Acts is more likely to be authorial than that of the Codex Vaticanus B text of Acts. As a result, they are wont to read as intelligible what may appear to other textual critics as scribal nonsense.

Right. I am cautions about accepting the readings (interpretations of Bezae) of Acts in Rius-Camps & Read-Heimerdinger for precisely that reason.

BTW, I have another Text Critical project going on behind the scenes which will eventually see the light of day but at this time is kind of under wraps due to copyright negotiations. Wondering if there is anyone here who would like to do a little work in text of Acts in support of a worthy cause. It could be anywhere from a hours work to a big project depending on how much interest you have in it. All you would need is the ability to read the critical apparatus in UBS4. A copy of NA27 and Swanson for Acts would be nice but not essential. I have a rather full apparatus for Acts in a word file I can send you.

My immediate need is for someone to simply look through the the full apparatus for Acts and mark (color highlighting or some sort of marking) any variant that is found in the UBS4 apparatus. A simple task should not take more than hour. I don’t have UBS4. If anyone has an interest in a project like this send me a PM and I will give you more detail.

Statistics: Posted by Stirling Bartholomew — December 13th, 2013, 5:18 pm


John 3:21

New Testament • Function of fronting αὐτοῦ in JOHN 3:21

Dear friends,

what is the effect of putting αὐτοῦ before its Referent “τὰ ἔργα”:

John 3:21 Ὁ δὲ ποιῶν τὴν ἀλήθειαν ἔρχεται πρὸς τὸ φῶς, ἵνα φανερωθῇ αὐτοῦ τὰ ἔργα, ὅτι ἐν θεῷ ἐστιν εἰργασμένα.

Is it possible to translate this Feature? Maybe “his own deeds” or something similar? Then, additionally, how can the “truth” be done? Is it rather: to act according to truth?

Thanks for all help !
Yours
Peter, Germany

Statistics: Posted by Peter Streitenberger — November 27th, 2013, 7:44 am


2 Timothy 3:6-7

2 Timothy 3:6-7

An Exegetical Analysis of 2 Timothy 3:6-7: Grammatical Gender, Diminutive Semantics, and the Referent of Participles This exegetical study of “An Exegetical Analysis of 2 Timothy 3:6-7: Grammatical Gender, Diminutive Semantics, and the Referent of Participles” is based on a b-greek discussion from June 17th, 2013. The initial inquiry presented 2 Timothy 3:6-7 in Greek…

Matthew 13:46

Matthew 13:46

“`html An Exegetical Analysis of the Perfect Tense in Matthew 13:46: The Aspect of πέπρακεν body { font-family: ‘Palatino Linotype’, ‘Book Antiqua’, Palatino, serif; line-height: 1.6; margin: 40px; } h1, h2, h3 { color: #333; } h2 { border-bottom: 1px solid #ccc; padding-bottom: 5px; margin-top: 30px; } h3 { color: #555; margin-top: 25px; } blockquote…

John 13:6

John 13:6

An Exegetical Analysis of John 13:6: The Pragmatic Significance of Pronoun Placement This exegetical study of John 13:6 is based on a b-greek discussion from March 8th, 2013. The initial query concerned John 13:6 (ἔρχεται οὖν πρὸς Σίμων Πέτρον. λέγει αὐτῷ, Κύριε, σύ μου νίπτεις τοὺς πόδας;) specifically focusing on the grammatical and pragmatic implications…

John 11:27

John 11:27

“`html An Exegetical Examination of Martha’s Confession in John 11:27: The Significance of the Perfect Tense and Emphatic Pronoun An Exegetical Examination of Martha’s Confession in John 11:27: The Significance of the Perfect Tense and Emphatic Pronoun This exegetical study of An Exegetical Examination of Martha’s Confession in John 11:27 is based on a b-greek…