Mt 9:17 Dmitriy Reznik dpreznik at usa.net Mon Sep 13 16:34:05 EDT 1999 QEOTHS-Col 2:9 Mt 9:17 Dear friends,Could you tell me whether there is any difference between KAINOS and NEOS in Mt 9:17: … ALLA BALLOUSIN OINON NEON EIS ASKOUS KAINOUS… (but they put new wine into new skins…)?And can KAINOS mean “renewed”…
hOI for some in Mt 28:17? richard smith rbsads at aol.com Sun May 19 23:04:56 EDT 2002 The opening of 1 Peter Vine’s Expository Dictionary Mt 28:17 KAI IDONTES AUTON PROSEKUNHSAN,hOI DE EDISTASANAre there grammatical reasons that hOI is generally translated as “some”rather that as “they”?Someone from another list suggested that DE might be…
Subjunctive in Mt. 16:28 Phylax phylax at aracnet.com Sat Sep 19 02:01:58 EDT 1998 John 12:27 Subjunctive in Mt. 16:28 Looking at Matthew 16:28, there there are two subjunctives:… hOITINES OU MH GEUSWNTAI QANATOU EWS AN IDWSIN TON UION TOU ANQRWPOUERCOMENON … I would expect GEUOMAI to be in the indicative and don’t know what…
mt 23:10 jim west jwest at Highland.Net Tue Oct 26 11:02:55 EDT 1999 Off-Topic: Moscow Mt 23:10 In the Hebrew NT I happen to have the greek term kaqhghths is translated’moreh’ here. It sets me to pondering, is it possible that the author ishere suggesting that the leader of the Qumran community, like the “rabbis”and…
Isaiah 45:19 (also Isaiah 7:14 in Mt 1:23) Benjamin Raymond braymond at ipa.net Sat Sep 5 21:34:28 EDT 1998 Compound subjects with hH? Present tence copulative verbs At 10:54 PM 9/4/98 +0000, you wrote:>On Fri 4 Sep 98 (15:31:55), cms at dragon.com wrote:>> Could the repetition be a scribal error or is it emphasis? Not…
Vladislav Kotenko wrote:
Could anyone please tell me whether there is a difference between Greek words τέλος (tel’-os) and συντελείας (soon-tel’-i-ah) used at Matthew 24:14 and 28:20 respectively? Can they refer to the same thing? Do they have the same derivation?
If you are asking whether τὸ τέλος and ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος in Matthew 24:14 and 28:20 respectively refer to the same point of time prophetically, the simple answer is yes. τὸ τέλος and ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος are used interchangeably in vv. 3, 6 and 14 in Matthew 24. Since ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος has a uniform meaning throughout the New Testament, we have the equation τὸ τέλος in Matthew 24:14 = ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος in Matthew 28:20.
However, τέλος in the NT is not always identical with ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος , even in a prophetic context. Mt. 24:13-14 reads
13ὁ δὲ ὑπομείνας εἰς τέλος οὗτος σωθήσεται. 14καὶ κηρυχθήσεται τοῦτο τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τῆς βασιλείας ἐν ὅλῃ τῇ οἰκουμένῃ εἰς μαρτύριον πᾶσιν τοῖς ἔθνεσιν, καὶ τότε ἥξει τὸ τέλος.
The second τέλος is the equivalent of ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος but the first τέλος is not. It rather refers to the end of the earthly life of each believer (cf. John 13:1: Πρὸ δὲ τῆς ἑορτῆς τοῦ πάσχα εἰδὼς ὁ Ἰησοῦς ὅτι ἦλθεν αὐτοῦ ἡ ὥρα ἵνα μεταβῇ ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου τούτου πρὸς τὸν πατέρα, ἀγαπήσας τοὺς ἰδίους τοὺς ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ εἰς τέλος ἠγάπησεν αὐτούς, where τέλος refers to the end of Jesus’ earthly life).
Statistics: Posted by leonardjayawardena — July 7th, 2014, 12:48 am
Just to update my current state of thinking/confusion about this text:πῶς εἰσῆλθεν εἰς τὸν οἶκον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ τοὺς ἄρτους τῆς προθέσεως ἔφαγον, ὃ οὐκ ἐξὸν ἦν αὐτῷ φαγεῖν οὐδὲ τοῖς μετ᾿ αὐτοῦ εἰ μὴ τοῖς ἱερεῦσιν μόνοις;
Would the construction be better if the φαγεῖν were omitted?
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — January 8th, 2014, 3:27 pm
 Mt 28:19 AUTOUS EIS TO ONOMA Don Dwight dddwight1234 at sbcglobal.net Wed Oct 3 18:59:38 EDT 2007  PAS in Colossians 1:15-20 and tense in v.20  Mt 28:19 AUTOUS EIS TO ONOMA Does Mt 28:19 contain the double accusative construction?Mt 28:16 οἱ δὲ ἕνδεκα μαθηταὶ ἐπορεύθησαν εἰς τὴν Γαλιλαίαν εἰς τὸ ὄρος οὗ…