In the LXX/Septuaginta one finds (examples just for Genesis and Exodus) a: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Sg.] (Ex. 26:10) b: [ανα μεσον + Gen.Pl.] ; (Ex. 22:10; 25:22; 26:28; 28:33; 36:32;Gen. 15:17; 31:37; 31:53; 42:23; 49:14c: [ανα μεσον + Gen. + Gen.] (Ex. 11:7…
Excellent observations there, Joel. My main fascination with this is the distinct lack of nomen sacrum for either πατὴρ or οὐράνιος used in the papyrus, which may be further indication of it’s early assigned date (2nd century CE).Pretty sure ὑμῶν ὁ fr…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
Double-check that Judges quote.Even worse than wikipedia, ChatGPT is often a bad approximation of conventional wisdom being repeated back at you. It will make up supporting evidence when it doesn’t have anything available.Statistics: Posted by jeidsat…
It looks as if it came into NT from LXX, and didn’t spread much further. That wouldn’t be too remarkable would it?(SEG 31.983 has απο πρωιθεν, II/I BCE.)Statistics: Posted by mwh — Sun Apr 14, 2024 11:35 pm
The physical coins themselves would seem to be their own witness, imo. And the NT is witness to the usage when it was written, slightly later than Jesus’ lifetime.But if only a papyrus will do, this is dated to “29 – 2 BC?”, for whatever the dating is…
One of the main uses of ποιεῖν is to “cause” things to be in a certain state or to happen. The Greeks used it like that all the way back to Homer.ἡ δ’ οὔτ’ ἀρνεῖται στυγερὸν γάμον οὔτε τελευτὴν / ποιῆσαι δύναταιAnd she [Penelope] neither refuses the o…
The indefinitie Subject in Lk 12:20 is mentioned in Robertson 1934, Page 392 (https://archive.org/details/grammarofgr … 2/mode/2up) and in Debrunner-Blass-Funk 1961 Paragraph 130 Note (2) (https://archive.org/details/bdf-a-greek … 2/mode/2up).Stat…
I think Vers 15:11 and 19 make it clear:οτι ηγνοησεν τον πλασαντα αυτον και τον εμπνευσαντα αυτω ψυχην ενεργουσαν και εμφυσαντα πνευμα ζωτικονbecause he did not know the one who molded him and infused him with an active soul and breathed into him a li…
Ἐκβάτανα is Persian, not Greek, and the various transliterations are attempts at representing the Persian. No need to bring in ἐκβαίνω/ἀποβαίνω at all.Statistics: Posted by Chris Weimer — Thu Mar 28, 2024 12:50 pm
Addition: Zerwick 1963 page 1-4 (“The use of the Plural”: https://archive.org/details/biblicalgre … 7/mode/2up. : To Borrow for 1 hour!)Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:45 pm
Having looked at the Tauchnitz New Testament that MacDonald mentions, I think that one possibility is that he means Matthew 17:21 and Mark 9:29. Matthew 17:21: “Howbeit this kind goeth not out but by prayer and fasting.”The apparatus lists S*V as omit…
I think that the reader is probably supposed to understand the imagined event as a type spoken persuasion. But all the Greek says is that the beast “will make them so they’ll get put to death”. It’s not precise. Did the author imagine the beast orderi…
Maybe the reason for the passive translation is, that the evil will probably not volontarely get out of the way, but must be removed (by whom-/whatsover).Even mr Bill Mounce has questions regarding this text (https://www.billmounce.com/path/should-be-…
Fascinating, thanks Joel! Where can I find Chrysostom’s commentary on the Psalms in the original Greek?Statistics: Posted by Mitch — Sun Mar 24, 2024 4:28 pm
Here’s my translation of 2Th 2:1-12, with some notes. It makes a bit more sense to me now than the last time I looked at it. Hopefully it will make even more sense the next time I run across it, however many years from now. But who knows?Ἐρωτῶμεν δὲ ὑ…
Addition: Zerwick 1963 page 1-4 (“The use of the Plural”: https://archive.org/details/biblicalgre … 7/mode/2up. : To Borrow for 1 hour!)Statistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:45 pm
Pretty sure ὑμῶν ὁ from Matt 6:26 could fit in line 13 on the recto before οὐράνιος, so will be interesting to see if the latest Oxyrhynchus volume restores the lacunae.I now have a copy.In the notes they say that the letter before οὐράνιος cannot be …