You have two examples of the “but instead” meaning in the Psalm quote. I would say that neither appear to use an emphatic negative. And my post was an argument for *not* reading Luke 12:51 with this “but instead” translation. I suggest looking through…
A nice try Joel. Chad noted the cross was fixed (πεπηγμένος) at the beginning of the section, so there can’t be much doubt about τὸν πεπηγμένον here—a different conception from the walking talking cross of the Gospel of Peter, but evidently reflecting…
Okay, Jean. Thanks again!Statistics: Posted by BrianB — Thu Jan 09, 2025 5:11 pm
You could also check out Reading Greek with the Desert Fathers by Timothy Brady. The Greek is slightly adapted to match the GNT in vocabulary and syntax which makes this an intermediate stepping stone between the GNT and other koine writings.Statistic…
Examples of true impersonals: Eng: It’s raining, Ger: es regnet, Gr: ὕει.Eng: It has to, Ger: es muss, Gr: δεῖλέγουσιν in Luke 20:41 is an “occasional impersonal”. It means “people say” or “they say”. Luther translates “sagen sie”, but he could have s…
…which makes me wonder if the repetition of οὐχ οὕτως in Psalm 1:4 is perhaps another way of expressing an emphatic negative in Greek? In other words, maybe ἀλλ’ ἢ only means “but rather / but instead” when it is immediately preceeded by an emphatic…
This expression is from 2 Thes. 2:7. It means to be “taken out of the way,” to be “cast out,” to be “removed,” to be “exiled,” as it were. Thus we see in Revelation 12:10 that the Great Dragon (Satan) is cast out or removed from Heaven:καὶ ἤκουσα φω…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
I am so confused about this sentence in Acts of John 98: καὶ τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγγη βιάβα καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας·so, ἀνάγγη, is the verb (aor.pass.ind.) and βιάβα might be predicative to the implicit subject of ἀνάγγη. What I don’t get is τὸν…
I hope I’m not breaking any rules by reopening a thread that has been dormant for six months. I just noticed that Joachim Jeremias gives his own answer to your specific question, citing chapter and verse, on p. 9 of his book New Testament Theology (li…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
Might also simply be ungrammatical Greek e.g. the translator seems to be rigidly following the word order of the Hebrew here, see https://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/18-40.htmStatistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat Feb 01, 2025 5:41 pm
Does this fit with the context at all? I’ve never come across this text, which looks pretty weird. Christian mysticism?Yes, sort of, its a so-called AAA – apocryphal acts of the apostles with “John” as the main character. With much dualism/mysticism g…
I like Mitch’s explanation.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Sat Feb 01, 2025 6:08 pm
It makes more sense in the context of the sheep being cared for by a shepherd. The shepherd has pastured and raised me in a grassy place by calm waters. This mental context explains why the LXX translator thought to use ἐξέθρεψε for a Hebrew word mean…
dear Mitch,“ I *still* can’t remember all of it “I know very well how that feels! I had my last Greek-Lessons are 40 years ago. Even then I was horrible bad in Greek. Probably my old Greek-Teacher would be very astonished (and happy) to see, that now …
Thanks Jean, after checking it out on Archive.org it looks like volume 1 of the Analytical Concordance is what I’m looking for. But I can’t figure out what volume 2 is about, it just looks like an endless stream of phrases with xrefs but no headings–…
εἰς τόπον χλόης, ἐκεῖ με κατεσκήνωσεν, ἐπὶ ὕδατος ἀναπαύσεως ἐξέθρεψέ με- 22.2Here I’d like to know what sense you would say that ἐπὶ ὕδατος is used. Locative? Instrumental?Statistics: Posted by CMatthiasT88 — Tue Feb 04, 2025 6:03 pm
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@mwhthanks for the attested απο πρωιθεν. I am surprised that the English translation (https://philipharland.com/greco-roman-a … -ii-i-bce/ ) of that instance has “previously” instead of “from the morning”.Indeed, the christian texts might very well …
It makes more sense in the context of the sheep being cared for by a shepherd. The shepherd has pastured and raised me in a grassy place by calm waters. This mental context explains why the LXX translator thought to use ἐξέθρεψε for a Hebrew word mean…