Philipians 2:6 KJohn36574 at aol.com KJohn36574 at aol.com Wed Dec 22 23:58:15 EST 1999 Acts 2:38 Which translation? Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1:1-4 I think that Paul is addressing a fear factor here. He is trying to encourage the Philipians. He is in chains (Phil. 1:7,14) awaiting possible death, but not afraid,…
EN XRISTWi IHSOU-Phil. 4:7 Edgar Foster questioning1 at yahoo.com Mon Jul 12 13:52:57 EDT 1999 EN XRISTWi IHSOU-Phil. 4:7 EN XRISTWi IHSOU-Phil. 4:7 — “Carl W. Conrad” <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu> wrote:>At 8:51 AM -0700 7/12/99, Edgar Foster wrote:>Dear Carl, Carlton, and Jim,>Thanks for your help with the “peace of God” phrasein Phil. 4:7. I…
What is this cross? HANDY907 at aol.com HANDY907 at aol.com Fri Oct 8 00:20:49 EDT 1999 old new mss patristic references? Dear members:In the “Greek Grammar Beyond The Basics” by Wallace, there appears a little cross by some of the cases. The Dative case is a good example. On page 137, this sign appears…
I think that the difference between λανθάνω and ἐπιλανθάνομαι is similar to the difference between ποθέω and ἐπιποθέω
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Hughes — May 17th, 2017, 10:58 am
Stephen Hughes wrote:Philippians 4:10 wrote:Ἐχάρην δὲ ἐν κυρίῳ μεγάλως, ὅτι ἤδη ποτὲ ἀνεθάλετε τὸ ὑπὲρ ἐμοῦ φρονεῖν· ἐφ’ ᾧ καὶ ἐφρονεῖτε, ἠκαιρεῖσθε δέ.What explanation can be put forward to describe why ἠκαιρεῖσθε is in the middle voice here?
[The antonym εὐκαιρεῖν is used in the active voice, both absolutely ἐλεύσεται δὲ ὅταν εὐκαιρήσῃ. (1 Corinthians 16:12), and in conjunction with an infinitive οὐδὲ φαγεῖν εὐκαίρουν. (Mark 6:31).]
I’ve noted Mike’s comment and the further elaboration Stephen has offered. I think Mke is right here to say we’d have a better notion if we had more instances of the verb’s usage, but DGE (see Logeion) offers additional support for middle-passive usage;
it’s also the case that we don’t have much doubt about what Paul is saying in this rather informally-phrased locution: “Your impulsive thoughtfulness on my behalf has deeply gratified me — the fact that you wanted to do something but had no opportunity.” It seems to me that ἠκαιρεῖσθε here is a personal usage involving deprivation: Subject-affectedness is discerned and expressed in the middle voice here.
Statistics: Posted by cwconrad — March 18th, 2017, 8:44 am
MAubrey wrote: ↑November 27th, 2017, 7:25 pmIf you remember, Rachel and I talked about a comparable example in Galatians back in Cambridge in June/July.starting on page 40…https://www.academia.edu/34125524/The_c … structionsThanks, this is exactly…
: The Biblical Greek Forum /////////////////////////////////////////// What does this text mean? Re: Phil 1:9 – το Posted: 20 Sep 2012 06:18 PM PDT http://feedproxy.google.com/~r//~3/Z2-7PemuzdE/viewtopic.php?utm_source=feedburner&utm_medium=email rhutchin wrote: What is the purpose for το in the three instances in which it is used above – linked to χριστου in each case? Would it make a difference if…
[bible passage=”Philippians 1:27″] Ladies and Gentlemen: I am perplexed and perhaps a little cynical about the concept of “attraction” in Koine Greek. One example [among several] occurs in Philippians 1:27-28 where, in Mounce’s Graded Reader, he quotes Fee (NICNT) saying that the hHTIS in v28 refers back to the preceding clause refers back to the…
Philippians 1.10 D. Anthony Storm dstorm at 2xtreme.net Fri May 21 00:50:52 EDT 1999 PLEIW in Matt 26:53 Keeping up with NT Greek after class I apologize if this has been discussed, but I cannot get the archive searchto provide me with meaningful responses.In Phil. 1.10 we read:EIS TO DOKIMAZEIN hUMAS TA DIAFERONTAGenerally this…
Pat Ferguson wrote:
Here’s what another source relates:Old English hors, from Proto-Germanic *hursa- …, of unknown origin, connected by some with PIE root *kurs-, source of Latin currere “to run”.
The usual Indo-European word is represented by Old English eoh, from PIE *ekwo- “horse” (see equine). In many other languages, as in English, this root has been lost in favor of synonyms, probably via superstitious taboo on uttering the name of an animal so important in Indo-European religion. (Douglas Harper, Online Etymology Dictionary 2013)
That quote just says that the Germanic etymon of English horse is of obscure origin; it doesn’t say anything about ἵππος. And if you click on the word equine from where you quoted it, it says that ἵππος comes from the PIE *ekwo-.
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — January 11th, 2014, 5:44 pm
The relevant paragraph is quoted here; Phi 3:12-16 12 OUC OTI HDH ELABON H HDH TETELEIWMAI DIWKW DE EI KAI KATALABW, EF hW KAI KATELHMFQHN hUPO CRISTOU 13 ADELFOI, EGW EMAUTON OUPW LOGIZOMAI KATEILHFENAI hEN DE TA MEN OPISW EPILANQANOMENOS TOIS DE EMPROSQEN EPEKTEINOMENOS 14 KATA SKOPON DIWKW EIS TO BRABEION THS ANW KLHSEWS TOU…
[bible passage=”Philippians 3:20″] A friend of mine writes: “I have summarily rejected the lexical definitions of apekdechomai, taking, instead, the meaning of the verb dechomai, and adding the meanings of the added prefixes. This is just for your consideration. It gives the verse a very different meaning. Phil. 3:20 “For you see, our citizenship (result…
