Mr. Conrad,
I tend to agree with you.
Added to that is that Paul calls what is happening a “mystery.” The 10 Northern Tribes being brought back into the “fold” (2 sticks becoming one, Ezekiel 37) would not have been a mystery since their Scriptures clearly expressed what would happen.
Thank you for the response. I appreciate it.
Dustin Curlee
Statistics: Posted by dcurlee — December 21st, 2013, 5:17 pm
Stephen Carlson wrote:
Actually, the phrase is καὶ ἐάν = even if.
WOW. That’s it. Thanks.
Moon
Statistics: Posted by moon — June 13th, 2014, 4:51 pm
Stephen Hughes wrote:Philippians 4:10 wrote:Ἐχάρην δὲ ἐν κυρίῳ μεγάλως, ὅτι ἤδη ποτὲ ἀνεθάλετε τὸ ὑπὲρ ἐμοῦ φρονεῖν· ἐφ’ ᾧ καὶ ἐφρονεῖτε, ἠκαιρεῖσθε δέ.What explanation can be put forward to describe why ἠκαιρεῖσθε is in the middle voice here?
[The antonym εὐκαιρεῖν is used in the active voice, both absolutely ἐλεύσεται δὲ ὅταν εὐκαιρήσῃ. (1 Corinthians 16:12), and in conjunction with an infinitive οὐδὲ φαγεῖν εὐκαίρουν. (Mark 6:31).]
I’ve noted Mike’s comment and the further elaboration Stephen has offered. I think Mke is right here to say we’d have a better notion if we had more instances of the verb’s usage, but DGE (see Logeion) offers additional support for middle-passive usage;
it’s also the case that we don’t have much doubt about what Paul is saying in this rather informally-phrased locution: “Your impulsive thoughtfulness on my behalf has deeply gratified me — the fact that you wanted to do something but had no opportunity.” It seems to me that ἠκαιρεῖσθε here is a personal usage involving deprivation: Subject-affectedness is discerned and expressed in the middle voice here.
Statistics: Posted by cwconrad — March 18th, 2017, 8:44 am
MAubrey wrote: ↑November 27th, 2017, 7:25 pmIf you remember, Rachel and I talked about a comparable example in Galatians back in Cambridge in June/July.starting on page 40…https://www.academia.edu/34125524/The_c … structionsThanks, this is exactly…
Stephen Hughes wrote: ↑October 24th, 2017, 11:29 amJonathan Robie wrote: ↑October 24th, 2017, 6:01 amI don’t want this to get lost – Timothy is correct here, and this is the one direct response to the question in the OP.ταυτη is not referring back to …
“`html The Genitive of Product in Romans 15:33: A Linguistic and Grammatical Analysis This exegetical study of The Genitive of Product in Romans 15:33: A Linguistic and Grammatical Analysis is based on a b-greek discussion from August 11th, 2013. The initial inquiry concerned the interpretation of the expression “ὁ δὲ θεὸς τῆς εἰρήνης” at Romans…
Pat Ferguson wrote:
Here’s what another source relates:Old English hors, from Proto-Germanic *hursa- …, of unknown origin, connected by some with PIE root *kurs-, source of Latin currere “to run”.
The usual Indo-European word is represented by Old English eoh, from PIE *ekwo- “horse” (see equine). In many other languages, as in English, this root has been lost in favor of synonyms, probably via superstitious taboo on uttering the name of an animal so important in Indo-European religion. (Douglas Harper, Online Etymology Dictionary 2013)
That quote just says that the Germanic etymon of English horse is of obscure origin; it doesn’t say anything about ἵππος. And if you click on the word equine from where you quoted it, it says that ἵππος comes from the PIE *ekwo-.
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — January 11th, 2014, 5:44 pm
