Ephesians 4:26 Louise Cafolla lcafolla at hotmail.com Wed Apr 12 22:07:04 EDT 2000 Previous message: Greek diagraming Next message: Ephesians 4:26 Friends discussing Ephesians have a question concerning the tense of the verb “angry” in this passage. Some references seem to indicate the text is a continual command, i.e., “continually be angry.” Roberts Word…
 Eph 1:4 EN AUTW Andrew Batishko abatish at xmission.com Tue Aug 8 08:30:18 EDT 2006  Why Monotonic Greek. Was: Free Polytonic Uncial GreekUnicode Font?  Eph 1:4 EN AUTW I’m only just now starting to learn biblical greek on my own, so forgive me if the answer to this is obvious.Ephesians 1:4…
 Ephesians 1:3-4 Joe Hightower boeinguy2 at yahoo.com Fri Jul 28 12:47:05 EDT 2006  Romans 4:1  Ephesians 1:3-4 I am wrestling with an issue involving the word kathos (KAQWS for those who use the system). There are several definitions for this including ‘just as’, according to’ or ‘basis’, which can be applied.…
Ephesians 4:12 Jay Anthony Adkins Jadkins26438 at cs.com Thu Jul 11 08:43:27 EDT 2002 ERCESQAI, 1 Ephesians 4:12 Dear ‘s,While my efforts to use the Lyris search engine failed, I seem to vaguelyremember a discussion a few years ago on Ephesians 4:12 and the placementor removal of a comma, which could in turn alter…
 Fwd: Ephesians 2:1-3 John Butzu jbutzu at gmail.com Tue Mar 24 10:48:13 EDT 2009  Zhubert’s daily greek read  Fwd: Ephesians 2:1-3 ———- Forwarded message ———-From: John Butzu <jbutzu at gmail.com>Date: Tue, Mar 17, 2009 at 10:01 AMSubject: Ephesians 2:1-3To: at lists.ibiblio.orgHello. Could someone please explain to me why in Ephesians 2:1…
Paul uses many parenthetical statements, especially in Ephesians. How does one determine when a parenthesis begins and ends? Also, regarding Eph.3:16-17, does it not seem that ινα δωη υμιν κατα τον πλουτον της δοξης αυτου δυναμει κραταιωθηναι δια του πνευματος αυτου εις τον εσω ανθρωπον kατοικησαι τον χριστον δια της πιστεως εν ταις καρδιαις υμων is a parenthetical within a parenthetical? Thanks.
Statistics: Posted by dpost1254 — March 15th, 2017, 4:16 pm
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος
This is always translated as “In the beginning”, but from the little I
understand of Greek grammar, one shouldn’t append the definite article in
English if the article is absent in Greek.
Is this “hyer-literal” translation accurate:
“In origin was the Word”
ὅτι ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὁ διάβολος ἁμαρτάνει
“For the devil sins from the beginning.”
The devil has an article, in both Greek and English, but again, beginning
Apologies for a simplistic question, I’m only two words into the text and
Can someone clear this up for me?
Statistics: Posted by Danny Diskin — April 14th, 2014, 10:40 pm
Just wondering if Matthew 12:40 (ὥσπερ γὰρ ἦν Ἰωνᾶς ἐν τῇ κοιλίᾳ τοῦ κήτους τρεῖς ἡμέρας καὶ τρεῖς νύκτας, οὕτως ἔσται ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ τῆς γῆς τρεῖς ἡμέρας καὶ τρεῖς νύκτας) could be translated this way:
For the Son of Man will be in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights for the same reason that Jonah was in the belly of the fish for three days and three nights.
Statistics: Posted by jgibson000 — June 22nd, 2017, 4:36 pm
Yeah, my objective with Sahidic is even less ambitious than a similar project with Syriac. I thought it would be useful to look at the architecture of the language and see to what extent the versions could be trusted in textual criticism. I thought it would be about as difficult as Syriac coming from Hebrew. I was wrong.
Statistics: Posted by Stirling Bartholomew — May 23rd, 2017, 3:11 pm
Stephen Carlson wrote: ↑April 17th, 2017, 11:59 pm
As far as I can tell, there’s no simple relation between the two. They’re different things. The fact that they share the term “topic” seems to be creating expectations they are more closely related, but they are not.
I really do think I’ve heard some other people imply that there is a closer relationship than that, but those people may be confused too.
Stephen Carlson wrote: ↑April 17th, 2017, 11:59 pmLambrecht’s books has been very popular and influential. He provides (his own) definitions for topic and focus. It is similar to what Levinsohn is doing, but not identical. I think Levinsohn follows Simon Dik more (whom I haven’t read). So does Helma Dik.
I have Simon Dik’s book. It is very clearly written, I should work my way through it.
Stephen Carlson wrote: ↑April 17th, 2017, 11:59 pmLevinsohn has actually published quite a bit. To understand him, that’s the first and best place to go. His coursebook, though dated, lays out several of the concepts, but he’s been updating them in other publications. Many of these are on his website. If you can read Spanish, you may find his introduction to his Galatians analysis helpful.
Thanks, I’ll look there. My … Spanish … is not great. But that kind of technical Spanish may or may not be possible.
Statistics: Posted by Jonathan Robie — April 18th, 2017, 10:19 am
Here’s one way you could do that: use a text editor to make lists of verses like this:
Luke 19:23; John 17:6; John 17:8
Now use a site like Biblegateway that allows you to specify more than one verse at the same time. Here is the format for the URL you need:
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke 19:23; John 17:6; John 17:8&version=SBLGNT
Or you can enter the list of verses into their text box and select SBLGNT, if you prefer. Please start a new thread if you want to discuss the results of that, or put it into your moieties thread.
Statistics: Posted by Jonathan Robie — April 20th, 2017, 6:16 am
I tend to agree with you.
Added to that is that Paul calls what is happening a “mystery.” The 10 Northern Tribes being brought back into the “fold” (2 sticks becoming one, Ezekiel 37) would not have been a mystery since their Scriptures clearly expressed what would happen.
Thank you for the response. I appreciate it.
Statistics: Posted by dcurlee — December 21st, 2013, 5:17 pm
 syntatical significance of Eph. 4:11 Clay Lin lin_clay at hotmail.com Tue May 6 15:10:00 EDT 2003  Greek trivia: all the letters…  Greek trivia: all the letters… Greetings,I’m wondering of the significance of the syntax of Eph. 4:11 (MEN… DE… DE…DE… KAI).The significance lies, of course, in whether the last two elements…
That makes sense; I agree that Jesus kicked them all out so it is best to take παντας with those selling and the animals. How then do we decide who received the φραγελλιον? I lean towards it only being used on the harder to move animals, the oxen and the sheep since he addresses those…
Ephesians 3.1 Al Lukaszewski alski at fuller.edu Tue May 4 00:25:00 EDT 1999 FWIW: Relatively easy classical Greek texts Help with PhD Dissertation Pre-topic Dear Listmembers:I would be interested in hearing what everyone thinks of the syntax, inEphesians 3.1, of TOUTOU XARIN and whether the sentence should beunderstood as with an understood EIMI or…
Ephesians 2:8,9 Matthew R. Miller biblicalscribe at hotmail.com Wed Jun 6 14:29:48 EDT 2001 Phil 2:2, why TO AUTO accusative? Is Mk 14:62 a implied threat Hello all,th xariti in Ephesians 2:8 is in the dative case (feminine singular). Iunderstand the dative case to have the following main functions in koineGreek: 1) to indicate…
Is any body interested to work through maybe a hundred lines of this is some form or another in this thread?
Here are the first four lines that set the background for the Biblical quote (together with a few pointers that I think might be helpful):
Aratus Solensis, Phaenomena, 1-4 wrote:ἐκ Διὸς ἀρχώμεσθα, τὸν οὐδέποτ᾽ ἄνδρες ἐῶμεν
ἄρρητον: μεσταὶ δέ Διὸς πᾶσαι μὲν ἀγυιαί,
πᾶσαι δ᾽ ἀνθρώπων ἀγοραί, μεστὴ δὲ θάλασσα
καὶ λιμένες: πάντη δὲ Διὸς κεχρήμεθα πάντες.
ἀρχώμεσθα – let’s begin hortative subjunctive, ie. an invitation to join somebody in an action or endeavour that thay are undertaking or planning to undertake
τὸν … ἐάω … ἄρρητον – I let him be …, I am leaving him to be … a verb with two accusatives
ἄρρητος – not spoken of In speaking of his rapture, the Apostle uses ἄρρητος to describe what he heard in heaven – 2 Corrinthians 12:4 ὅτι ἡρπάγη εἰς τὸν παράδεισον, καὶ ἤκουσεν ἄρρητα ῥήματα, ἃ οὐκ ἐξὸν ἀνθρώπῳ λαλῆσαι.
μεστός – (stuffed) full adjective + genitive of what sth is filled with. It is used in the NT and survives into Modern Greek.
ἀγοραί – markets where people mean for commerce and social interaction, or the interactions that take place
Διὸς – of Zeus the meaning is the pantheistic all pervading world-soul, rather than the fickle olympian
ἀγυιαί – streets, highways a mostly Epic word that does not survive into Modern Greek
λιμήν – harbour the word is third declension masculine. It is used three times in the New Testament. As an illustration of the Modern Greek diglossia, it survives into literary Modern Greek as λιμένας, and has developed into colloquial Modern Greek as λιμάνι.
πάντη – in every way, altogether An adverbial form. It is used by Luke in Acts 24:2-3, Κληθέντος δὲ αὐτοῦ, ἤρξατο κατηγορεῖν ὁ Τέρτυλλος λέγων, Πολλῆς εἰρήνης τυγχάνοντες διὰ σοῦ, καὶ κατορθωμάτων γινομένων τῷ ἔθνει τούτῳ διὰ τῆς σῆς προνοίας, 3 πάντῃ τε καὶ πανταχοῦ ἀποδεχόμεθα, κράτιστε Φῆλιξ, μετὰ πάσης εὐχαριστίας.
κεχρήμεθα – we long for (From LSJ χράω) in pf. κέχρημαι (with pres. sense) c. gen., desire, yearn after, the usual sense in Ep.
Any responses, translations or queries for me or the greater brains trust?
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Hughes — May 20th, 2017, 3:44 am