Matthew 6:12

Matthew 6:12 Kevin Smith kgs at Mon Sep 20 16:57:18 EDT 1999   “Grammatical” Categories Matthew 6:12 Dear friends,In UBS4 Matthew 6:12 reads,KAI AFES hHMIN TA OFEILHMATA hHMWN, hWS KAI hHMEIS **AFHKAMEN** TOIS OFEILETAIS hHMWNI am mystified as to why UBS4 does not even list the variant readings for AFHKAMEN, namely, AFIEMEN and AFIOMEN.…

Matthew 23:9

Matt 23 9b …. For One Is Your Heavenly Father

[] Matt 23:9b …. for One is your Heavenly Father Jay Adkins jayadkins264 at Sat May 8 05:20:35 EDT 2010 [] οὔτις ἔσθ’ ὃς οὔ S.Ajax 725 & Jn 1:3 [] Matt 23:9b …. for One is your Heavenly Father Can some please explain to me why most English translations translate Matt23:9b as they…

Matthew 26:18

New Testament • Re: Matt. 26:18 – πρὸς σὲ and μετὰ τῶν μαθητῶν μου

Stephen Hughs wrote:

Is there enough in the πρός for us to know who was supplying the food? Is it more accurately: “I’ll be joining you for Pascha with my disciples.” or
“I’ll need a room at your place to hold Pascha with my disciples.”

I think it means “You will prepare the food, serve the tables and clean up afterward.”

Seriously though, I don’t think there is any particular indication though I don’t think Tupperware had yet been invented so I doubt that a pot luck dinner was envisioned. Probably the host would prepare the meal as well as providing the facilities for the dinner, but that isn’t something you’re going to get from the language of the passage

Statistics: Posted by George F Somsel — January 18th, 2014, 12:22 pm

2 Peter 3:10

New Testament • Re: 2 Peter 3:10  (NA28) *οὐχ* εὑρεθήσεται
Jonathan Robie wrote:

May 23rd, 2017, 3:06 pm

Stirling Bartholomew wrote:

May 23rd, 2017, 3:00 pm

Got a good laugh out of that. The suggestion assumes that I know enough coptic to correct the auto parsing mistakes.

Are you copting out?

Yeah, my objective with Sahidic is even less ambitious than a similar project with Syriac. I thought it would be useful to look at the architecture of the language and see to what extent the versions could be trusted in textual criticism. I thought it would be about as difficult as Syriac coming from Hebrew. I was wrong.

Statistics: Posted by Stirling Bartholomew — May 23rd, 2017, 3:11 pm

2 John 11

New Testament • Re: Split Constituent in John 2:11
Stephen Hughes wrote:

April 20th, 2017, 1:09 am

How difficult is it to make concordance list this into one with verse-either-side or paragraph contexts? Looking them up one by one and finding the element mentioned is tedious.

Here’s one way you could do that: use a text editor to make lists of verses like this:


Luke 19:23; John 17:6; John 17:8

Now use a site like Biblegateway that allows you to specify more than one verse at the same time. Here is the format for the URL you need:

CODE: 19:23; John 17:6; John 17:8&version=SBLGNT

Or you can enter the list of verses into their text box and select SBLGNT, if you prefer. Please start a new thread if you want to discuss the results of that, or put it into your moieties thread.

Statistics: Posted by Jonathan Robie — April 20th, 2017, 6:16 am

Philippians 4:10

New Testament • Re: Phil.4:10 Why is ἠκαιρεῖσθε middle here?
Stephen Hughes wrote:

Philippians 4:10 wrote:Ἐχάρην δὲ ἐν κυρίῳ μεγάλως, ὅτι ἤδη ποτὲ ἀνεθάλετε τὸ ὑπὲρ ἐμοῦ φρονεῖν· ἐφ’ ᾧ καὶ ἐφρονεῖτε, ἠκαιρεῖσθε δέ.

What explanation can be put forward to describe why ἠκαιρεῖσθε is in the middle voice here?

[The antonym‎ εὐκαιρεῖν is used in the active voice, both absolutely ἐλεύσεται δὲ ὅταν εὐκαιρήσῃ. (1 Corinthians 16:12), and in conjunction with an infinitive οὐδὲ φαγεῖν εὐκαίρουν. (Mark 6:31).]

I’ve noted Mike’s comment and the further elaboration Stephen has offered. I think Mke is right here to say we’d have a better notion if we had more instances of the verb’s usage, but DGE (see Logeion) offers additional support for middle-passive usage;
it’s also the case that we don’t have much doubt about what Paul is saying in this rather informally-phrased locution: “Your impulsive thoughtfulness on my behalf has deeply gratified me — the fact that you wanted to do something but had no opportunity.” It seems to me that ἠκαιρεῖσθε here is a personal usage involving deprivation: Subject-affectedness is discerned and expressed in the middle voice here.

Statistics: Posted by cwconrad — March 18th, 2017, 8:44 am

Matthew 1:19

Matthew 1:19

jonathan.borland wrote: Stephen Carlson wrote:Matt 1:19 wrote:Ἰωσὴφ δὲ ὁ ἀνὴρ αὐτῆς, δίακαιος ὢν καὶ μὴ θέλων αὐτὴν δειγματίσαι, ἐβουλήθη λάθρᾳ ἀπολῦσαι αὐτήν. Third, the prosody of the verse corroborates the view that λάθρᾳ does not construe with ἀπολῦσαι. After all, αὐτήν is an unemphatic pronoun and its natural position is second within its intonation unit.…