Mark 2:1

TA In Mark 2 1

TA in Mark 2:1 Richard A. Creighton richard.creighton at Thu May 27 23:54:57 EDT 1999   New email list!… IXTHUS Mark 2:1 contains the phrase TA PROS THN QURAN – Zerwick/Grosvenortranslate this as “space near the door”.How is the TA functioning here?Are there other examples of the definite article being used in this kindof…

Mark 5:9

Mark 5 9 LEGION demoniak

[] Mark 5:9 Singular explained as Plural? Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at Thu Dec 22 20:30:14 EST 2005   [] Mark 2:19 DUNAMAI [] Mark 5:9 Singular explained as Plural? KAI EPHRWTA AUTON, TI ONOMA SOI; KAI LEGEI AUTWiLEGIWN ONOMA MOI, hOTI POLLOI ESMEN.Is not LEGEI singular? And isn’t MOI singular? TheMOI…POLLOI at first looked…

Mark 2:16


Mark 2:16 hOI GRAMMATEIS TWN FARISAIWN Jonathan Robie jonathan.robie at Mon May 17 17:08:49 EDT 1999   Glassman Mark 2:16 hOI GRAMMATEIS TWN FARISAIWN Here’s a phrase that has thrown me for a loop. The Scribes of thePharisees? I thought they were two distinct groups.How is this to be understood?Jonathan___________________________________________________________________________Jonathan Robiejwrobie at mindspring.comLittle Greek…

Mark 16:2

Mk 16 2 Constituent Order

Mk 16:2 Constituent Order c stirling bartholomew cc.constantine at Tue Jun 26 14:57:36 EDT 2001   Sorry The text of Luke 2:2 and word order Anyone have anything to say about why ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU shows up atthe end of the clause in Mk 16:2. Mark piles up so many adverbials in thisclause that…

Mark 16:18

Mark 16 18 AROUSIN

[] Mark 16:18 AROUSIN Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at Tue Feb 4 06:08:55 EST 2003 [] SE in Mark 1:24 [] Mark 16:18 AROUSIN Forwarded for Harry Jones:From: “Harry W. Jones” <hwjones2 at>Date: Tue, 4 Feb 2003 02:17:57 -0800Hello All,My question concerns KAI EN TAIS CERSIN OFEIS AROUSIN.I have noticed that some translations…

Mark 8:7


Ekklesia Tony Calman tcalman at Sun May 9 19:10:57 EDT 1999   dia + genitive John 5:26 I have been considering the difference between a “congregation” and a “church” (if any)? The hebrew words qahal or edah seems to be translated by the word ekklesia in the LXX, which is often translated by the…

Mark 15:34

Mark 15:34

We are finally able to provide the published text of the article on the “cry of dereliction” from the Brill volume, The Language Environment of First Century Judaea, Randall Buth and R Steven Notley edd., (Brill, 2014, ISBN 9789004263406). The PDF of Randall Buth, “The Riddle of Jesus’ Cry from the Cross: the Meaning of ηλι ηλι λαμα σαβαχθανι (Matthew 27:46) and the Literary Function of ελωι ελωι λειμα σαβαχθανι (Mark 15:34)” is avaiable at: under “community” “BLC blog”

It is a fitting read/study for passion week.

Statistics: Posted by RandallButh — April 17th, 2014, 4:54 am

Mark 3:1

New Testament • Re: Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3
Wes Wood wrote:
Thanks for the responses the indirect question makes perfect sense. And the second part I don’t have a problem with either. I am meaning authorial foreshadowing inside the pericope, however. Nothing more than the author tipping his hand to what is going to happen in the narrative.

It’s a completely ordinary phrase as Timothy pointed out. It is easy to find its usage as simply “arise” in places like Mat 2:13, 9:19 26:46, Mark 10:49 14:42,. It clearly implies rising from a settled position, but nothing more. In fact, Luke 6:8 makes very clear what “εγειρε”/”εγειραι” in Mark 3:3 means.

Statistics: Posted by David Lim — June 17th, 2014, 7:18 am

Mark 8:5

New Testament • Re: Word order in Mark 8:5 Πόσους ἔχετε ἄρτους;
MAubrey wrote:

September 22nd, 2017, 12:52 pm

It would be more difficult to explain its position if it were moved forward.

The synoptic parallel provides one an opportunity to do that.

Matthew 15:34 wrote:Καὶ λέγει αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς, Πόσους ἄρτους ἔχετε;

Statistics: Posted by Stephen Hughes — September 22nd, 2017, 3:07 pm

Luke 19:7

New Testament • καταλῦσαι in Luke 19:7

I’ve been looking at the usage of καταλῦσαι in Luke 19:7 and am a bit stumped why it’s translated as “to be the guest of” (or a variation thereof) instead of to abolish, destroy, dissolve, etc.,

In light of the overall passage, it doesn’t make sense to use a derivative of abolish but I don’t understand either why it deviates so much from the other usages (i.e. Matthew 5:17, 61; Acts 5:39)

Statistics: Posted by Matt Lahey — June 19th, 2017, 6:47 pm

Mark 9:20

New Testament • Mark 9:20 – Who’s doing what

καὶ ἤνεγκαν αὐτὸν πρὸς αὐτόν. καὶ ἰδὼν αὐτὸν τὸ πνεῦμα εὐθὺς συνεσπάραξεν αὐτόν, καὶ πεσὼν ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἐκυλίετο ἀφρίζων.

I can see two ways of reading this – either the boy is the one who ἰδὼν Jesus, or the spirit within him (so masc. part. is CAS).

Looking at the other participles in the verse, they clearly describe physical actions that the boy is doing (πεσὼν … ἀφρίζων), so my initial instinct is to read ἰδὼν as referring to the boy, and not the spirit. Would then account for the mention of τὸ πνεῦμα as giving a separate subject for the action of the verb συνεσπάραξεν.

A third option would be to not think of the two as separate entities, and so it’s not a case of “either/or” but “both”, as they’re rather intertwined at this moment.

I see a similar thing in Mark 9:26 – καὶ κράξας καὶ πολλὰ σπαράξας ἐξῆλθεν – the participles describe the physical actions of the boy, and the verb is the action that the spirit does (‘And after crying out and convulsing violently, it departed’).


Statistics: Posted by S Walch — February 18th, 2017, 8:30 pm

Revelation 15:2

New Testament • Re: νικάω +  ἐκ  in Rev. 15,2

As an addition, as I could not edit the former text: M. Psellus, In E. Nic. 549.6: “δυνατὸν δὲ αὐτοὺς νικῆσαι οὐκ ἐκ προφανοῦς πο- λέμου”. “it is possible now that they win not out of a forseen battle”. Same author (Oratoria min. 2.37: ” ἀλλ’ ἐπὶ τῷ μάχεσθαι νικᾶν τε καὶ εἰρήνην ἐκ πολέμου…

Mark 4:29

New Testament • Re: Mark 4:29 παραδῷ allow, or ripen
cwconrad wrote:

Stephen Hughes wrote:

Mark 4:26-29 wrote:Καὶ ἔλεγεν, Οὕτως ἐστὶν ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ, ὡς ἐὰν ἄνθρωπος βάλῃ τὸν σπόρον ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς, καὶ καθεύδῃ καὶ ἐγείρηται νύκτα καὶ ἡμέραν, καὶ ὁ σπόρος βλαστάνῃ καὶ μηκύνηται ὡς οὐκ οἶδεν αὐτός. Αὐτομάτη γὰρ ἡ γῆ καρποφορεῖ, πρῶτον χόρτον, εἶτα στάχυν, εἶτα πλήρη σῖτον ἐν τῷ στάχυϊ. Ὅταν δὲ παραδῷ ὁ καρπός, εὐθέως ἀποστέλλει τὸ δρέπανον, ὅτι παρέστηκεν ὁ θερισμός.

In BDAG the meaning is παραδῷ “allow”, while the natural sense in the sequence if growth is ”ripen”.

Any thoughts either way?

παραδῷ is aorist; “ripen” is a process word. I’d think that idiomatic English would have to be “is ripe” or better, “is ready for harvest (has yielded its crop)”.

I think Carl’s gloss, “yield”, is the most helpful thing on this thread thus far. “When the crop yields…” It does fit nicely with the more popular usages of the verb.

Statistics: Posted by Jordan Day — May 10th, 2014, 12:15 pm

Luke 9:13

New Testament • εἰ μήτι with the subjunctive (Lk 9:13)

Could this be legitimately translated as a question? εἰ μήτι πορευθέντες ἡμεῖς ἀγοράσωμεν εἰς πάντα τὸν λαὸν τοῦτον βρώματα. Trans: Unless we go, can we buy food for all these people? Luke 9:13 Thanks, MMStatistics: Posted by monte.mackey — Decem…