Skip to content

Tag Archives: Mark

Mark 9:20


καὶ ἤνεγκαν αὐτὸν πρὸς αὐτόν. καὶ ἰδὼν αὐτὸν τὸ πνεῦμα εὐθὺς συνεσπάραξεν αὐτόν, καὶ πεσὼν ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἐκυλίετο ἀφρίζων.

I can see two ways of reading this – either the boy is the one who ἰδὼν Jesus, or the spirit within him (so masc. part. is CAS).

Looking at the other participles in the verse, they clearly describe physical actions that the boy is doing (πεσὼν … ἀφρίζων), so my initial instinct is to read ἰδὼν as referring to the boy, and not the spirit. Would then account for the mention of τὸ πνεῦμα as giving a separate subject for the action of the verb συνεσπάραξεν.

A third option would be to not think of the two as separate entities, and so it’s not a case of “either/or” but “both”, as they’re rather intertwined at this moment.

I see a similar thing in Mark 9:26 – καὶ κράξας καὶ πολλὰ σπαράξας ἐξῆλθεν – the participles describe the physical actions of the boy, and the verb is the action that the spirit does (‘And after crying out and convulsing violently, it departed’).


Statistics: Posted by S Walch — February 18th, 2017, 8:30 pm

Mark 12:18


If anything, I’d simply like to add here what I think is really pretty clear from the outset: the problem being raised here and the solution(s) being offered don’t hinge on the phrasing of the Greek text.

Statistics: Posted by cwconrad — June 6th, 2014, 1:22 pm

Revelation 15:2


As an addition, as I could not edit the former text: M. Psellus, In E. Nic. 549.6: “δυνατὸν δὲ αὐτοὺς νικῆσαι οὐκ ἐκ προφανοῦς πο- λέμου”. “it is possible now that they win not out of a forseen battle”. Same author (Oratoria min. 2.37: ” ἀλλ’ ἐπὶ τῷ μάχεσθαι νικᾶν τε καὶ εἰρήνην ἐκ πολέμου […]

Mark 4:29

cwconrad wrote:

Stephen Hughes wrote:

Mark 4:26-29 wrote:Καὶ ἔλεγεν, Οὕτως ἐστὶν ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ, ὡς ἐὰν ἄνθρωπος βάλῃ τὸν σπόρον ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς, καὶ καθεύδῃ καὶ ἐγείρηται νύκτα καὶ ἡμέραν, καὶ ὁ σπόρος βλαστάνῃ καὶ μηκύνηται ὡς οὐκ οἶδεν αὐτός. Αὐτομάτη γὰρ ἡ γῆ καρποφορεῖ, πρῶτον χόρτον, εἶτα στάχυν, εἶτα πλήρη σῖτον ἐν τῷ στάχυϊ. Ὅταν δὲ παραδῷ ὁ καρπός, εὐθέως ἀποστέλλει τὸ δρέπανον, ὅτι παρέστηκεν ὁ θερισμός.

In BDAG the meaning is παραδῷ “allow”, while the natural sense in the sequence if growth is ”ripen”.

Any thoughts either way?

παραδῷ is aorist; “ripen” is a process word. I’d think that idiomatic English would have to be “is ripe” or better, “is ready for harvest (has yielded its crop)”.

I think Carl’s gloss, “yield”, is the most helpful thing on this thread thus far. “When the crop yields…” It does fit nicely with the more popular usages of the verb.

Statistics: Posted by Jordan Day — May 10th, 2014, 12:15 pm

Mark 3:1

Wes Wood wrote:
I was considering the possibility of raised foreshadowing the restoration of the withered hand. Perhaps simar to it usage in James 5:15 or john 2:19-20, with rebuild or restore in the periphery of the meaning of the word. I’m not comfortable enough with greek overall to say this phrase is atypical, but it isn’t the phrase I would expect to see.

I hadn’t thought of the allusion you mention. Like you I wouldn’t feel comfortable throwing that one out there without serious consideration.

The theological consideration gets us well beyond this forum’s mandate, I should think. However, Timothy’s observation is also pertinent, in that the idea of “get up” is an expected meaning of the word in a context such as this. Now, ἐγείρω has quite a range of usage, but here is meaning 4 listed in BDAG:

④ to move to a standing position, rise, get up, pass. intr. of those who have awakened Mt 2:13f, 20f; 8:26; Lk 11:8; who were sitting down (EpArist 94) Mt 9:19; Lk 13:25; J 11:29; Hv 1, 4, 1; AcPl Ox 6; kneeling Hv 2, 1, 3; of the sick Mt 8:15; 9:6f; Mk 2:12; of those called back to life (cp. 4 Km 4:31) Mt 9:25; Lk 7:14. ἐκ τοῦ δείπνου rise from the table J 13:4; of one who has fallen Mt 17:7; Ac 9:8 (on ἀπὸ τ. γῆς cp. 2 Km 12:17; Ps 112:7).

Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature. Chicago: University of Chicago Press.

Statistics: Posted by Barry Hofstetter — June 8th, 2014, 3:28 pm

Luka 9:13


Could this be legitimately translated as a question? εἰ μήτι πορευθέντες ἡμεῖς ἀγοράσωμεν εἰς πάντα τὸν λαὸν τοῦτον βρώματα. Trans: Unless we go, can we buy food for all these people? Luke 9:13 Thanks, MMStatistics: Posted by monte.mackey — Decem…

Mark 1:1


This is rather a quick question on a first read of Mark 1:1: Should the genitive “of Jesus Christ” be translated as a possessive belonging to the “Gospel” in the first clause? Also, isn’t the clumsiness of the phrase, rather hanging at the end sufficient proof for its later addition in B D W /al/ […]

Mark 15:12


Thanks, Stephen. How about, for your possibility 1: ‘What then? Do you want me to make the one you are talking about King of the Jews?’. The first citation in BAGD II 3. is Epict. 2, 19, 19: τί Στωικὸν ἔλεγες σεαυτόν; which perhaps is even closer to what would be needed for possibility 2? […]