Dative Participle Luke 8:27 Moon-Ryul Jung moon at saint.soongsil.ac.kr Sun May 16 22:42:38 EDT 1999 Grammatical errors in Revelation? Grammatical errors in Revelation? Carl, do you mean that >> EXELQONTI DE AUTWi EPI THN GHN hUPHNTHSEN ANHR (1)is the same as >> hUPHNTHSEN DE ANHR AUTWi EXELQONTI EPI THN GHN .(2) . .except for…
aramaic influence Jim West jwest at Highland.Net Fri May 14 16:38:04 EDT 1999 syntax and semantics [Fwd: An Important Message for Members of AAR and SBL] one example, i think, of aramaic influence on the greek text seems to residein luke 13:2, 4. here the “sinners” are then called “debtors”- a confusionresolved when one…
Luke 4:5 Rick Strelan rick.strelan at mailbox.uq.edu.au Fri May 7 02:52:01 EDT 1999 Hebrews 11:1 Heb 2:17 My question raises not a Greek linguistic problem [in terms of grammar orvocabulary], but certainly one of meaning! What do people understand by Lk4:5 when Satan shows Jesus all the kingdoms EN STIGMi CRONOU? This suggeststhat both characters…
Luke 10:31: KATEBAINEN Mark Goodacre M.S.GOODACRE at bham.ac.uk Fri Jul 23 13:00:22 EDT 1999 IMHO? Luke 10:31: KATEBAINEN It occurred to me recently that the way we read the Good Samaritan (Luke 10.25-37) depends partly on whether or not we see the priest walking towards Jerusalem or away from Jerusalem. If he is on…
Luke 19:11 and grammatical marking Mike Sangrey msangrey at BlueFeltHat.org Thu Apr 18 14:50:13 EDT 2002 Greek computer programs (plus learning strategy for first-year Greek) Luke 19:11 and grammatical marking AKOUONTWN DE AUTWN TAUTA PROSQEIS EIPEN PARABOLHN DIA TO EGGUS EINAIIEROUSALHM AUTON KAI DOKEIN AUTOUS hOTI PARAXRHMA MELLEI hH BASILEIA TOUQEOU ANAFAINESQAIWhat I’m really…
MENOUN in Luke 11.28 Mark Goodacre M.S.GOODACRE at bham.ac.uk Wed May 5 12:44:17 EDT 1999 Hebrews 11:1 P. Comfort’s new book I would be grateful for any help on the translation of the following:Luke 11.28: MENOUN MAKARIOI hOI AKOUONTES TON LOGON TOU QEOU KAI FULASSONTES.The standard translation is “Blessed *rather* are those who hear…
Nestle GNT 1904 Ἐν δὲ τῷ λαλῆσαι ἐρωτᾷ αὐτὸν Φαρισαῖος ὅπως ἀριστήσῃ παρ’ αὐτῷ· εἰσελθὼν δὲ ἀνέπεσεν. Westcott and Hort 1881 Ἐν δὲ τῷ λαλῆσαι ἐρωτᾷ αὐτὸν Φαρισαῖος ὅπως ἀριστήσῃ παρ’ αὐτῷ· εἰσελθὼν δὲ ἀνέπεσεν. Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants] Ἐν δὲ τῷ λαλῆσαι ἐρωτᾷ αὐτὸν Φαρισαῖος ὅπως ἀριστήσῃ παρ’ αὐτῷ· εἰσελθὼν δὲ ἀνέπεσεν.…
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος
This is always translated as “In the beginning”, but from the little I
understand of Greek grammar, one shouldn’t append the definite article in
English if the article is absent in Greek.
Is this “hyer-literal” translation accurate:
“In origin was the Word”
ὅτι ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὁ διάβολος ἁμαρτάνει
“For the devil sins from the beginning.”
The devil has an article, in both Greek and English, but again, beginning
Apologies for a simplistic question, I’m only two words into the text and
Can someone clear this up for me?
Statistics: Posted by Danny Diskin — April 14th, 2014, 10:40 pm
S Walch wrote: ↑November 23rd, 2017, 6:33 amGood quick rundown there, Stirling. Just a few quick mistakes for you to rectify:Rev 10:1: you’ve not bolded the definite articles before κεφαλὴν/ςRev 11:3: In SBLG you’ve bolded προφητεύσουσιν instead of πε…
Yes, you can say that both egeneto structures provide setting material. However, they are two structures and it is useful to track them separately. The subject structure will introduce participants. The subjectless structure will provide a setting.
Commentators on Acts and Luke have led themselves astray by missing the distinction and making statements like “Luke uses the egeneto structure in both Luke-Acts,” implying that there is no qualitative difference. But there is. And it leads to a significant reappraisal of both works and fits well with other data.
Randall, thanks for the answer. So, are you saying:
(1) The EGENETO + subject structure is both found in Luke and LXX, and can be used to introduce a participant/character as sort of “setting” for a story..
(2) But this subject structure is NOT unique to LXX [Hebrew Bible], and can be a good Greek idiom.
(3) So, only the subjectless EGENETO structure can indicate the relatedness to Hebrew source.
Statistics: Posted by moon — June 21st, 2014, 10:03 pm
My rule of thumb is that if a verb is missing and it’s not in immediate parallelism with a preceding clause, try using a form of the verb εἶναι “to be.” That’s how some translations take it anyway.
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — March 12th, 2014, 1:36 am
Wes Wood wrote:
Thank you for your reply. Is it safe to say that ἵνα μὴ only negates a main verb? I cannot think of a time when I have heard/seen ‘lest’ where it did not link to a main verb. What I am not sure of is whether Greek works the same way. I am trying to determine what a good English equivalent for this phrase would be, if such a thing exists.
Also, I cannot find a parallel usage except for the one listed in LSJ. The words used appear to be too common for a Perseus search. If anyone would be willing to provide some examples of this phrase being used in other passages (Koine or otherwise), I would greatly appreciate it.
Well, you now have the listing of ἵνα μή clauses in the GNT. I’m not sure what you’re indicating in your comment. I think that “lest” is more or less archaic English: although I grew up with it, practically the only place I ever saw it was in grammar explanations of Latin ne or Greek ἵνα μή clauses. Certainly the ἵνα μή clauses are subordinate to a main verb, as here where the main verb is αἴρει in αἴρει τὸν λόγον ἀπὸ τῆς καρδίας αὐτῶν. We could raise the question whether the ἵνα μή indicates purpose or result, since ἵνα + subj. is being used in the Koine that way: “The devil makes them forget the word so that …” or “The devil comes along and makes them forget, the result being that they … “
Statistics: Posted by cwconrad — December 3rd, 2016, 9:22 am
Here’s one way you could do that: use a text editor to make lists of verses like this:
Luke 19:23; John 17:6; John 17:8
Now use a site like Biblegateway that allows you to specify more than one verse at the same time. Here is the format for the URL you need:
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke 19:23; John 17:6; John 17:8&version=SBLGNT
Or you can enter the list of verses into their text box and select SBLGNT, if you prefer. Please start a new thread if you want to discuss the results of that, or put it into your moieties thread.
Statistics: Posted by Jonathan Robie — April 20th, 2017, 6:16 am
Stephen Hughes wrote: ↑October 24th, 2017, 11:29 amJonathan Robie wrote: ↑October 24th, 2017, 6:01 amI don’t want this to get lost – Timothy is correct here, and this is the one direct response to the question in the OP.ταυτη is not referring back to …
ALLON & hETERON Luke 7:19,20 clayton stirling bartholomew c.s.bartholomew at worldnet.att.net Wed Mar 31 14:25:17 EST 1999 Happy Easter ALLON & hETERON Luke 7:19,20 In Luke 7:19,20 the manuscript evidence can be used in the service of NT lexical semantics. The distinction between ALLON (another of the samekind) and hETERON (another of a different…
Luke 2:2 John Barach jbarach at telusplanet.net Thu Dec 23 17:02:58 EST 1999 John 8:58 Fwd: Re: John 8:58 (I am, I have been, I was?) ers:Yes, I know Luke 2:2 is a thorny verse. I am aware of fourinterpretations of PRWTH here: (1) PRWTH is superlative: this was the first of a series…
Jesus’ use of AMHN LEGW SOI Dan Parker stoixein at sdf.lonestar.org Mon Jun 4 12:08:17 EDT 2001 Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Commentary Luke 4:40 Dear B-GREEKER’s,Please note all instances of “Truly I say to you” in the New AmericanStandard Bible where a _specific time_ is denoted in the same verse.Matthew 26:34 Jesus said to him, “Truly I…
“TAUTHN DE QUGATERA ABRAAM OUSAN, HN EDHSEN O SATANAS IDOU DEKA KAI OKTW ETH, OUK EDEI LUQHNAI APO TOU DESMOU TOUTOU THi HMERAi TOU SABBATOU;” (Luke 13:16). I’ve just read this chapter and it struck me that the place in the sentence and the use of the word “IDOU” were somewhat different from the normal…
Is APOGRAFASQAI correct here? I would have expected APOGRAFESQAI. Vasile Stancu