An Exegetical Examination of Luke 4:5: The Temptation and the Instant of Vision This exegetical study of An Exegetical Examination of Luke 4:5: The Temptation and the Instant of Vision is based on a b-greek discussion from Fri May 7 02:52:01 1999. The initial inquiry focused on the interpretation of Luke 4:5, specifically the phrase…
An Exegetical Analysis of Luke 7:34: The Son of Man “Eating and Drinking” This exegetical study of An Exegetical Analysis of Luke 7:34: The Son of Man “Eating and Drinking” is based on a b-greek discussion from no specific date mentioned in the post content. The initial inquiry raises a question regarding the precise meaning…
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An Exegetical Analysis of the Dative Participle in Luke 8:27 This exegetical study of Dative Participle Luke 8:27 is based on a b-greek discussion from May 16, 1999. The initial query concerned the precise word order in Luke 8:27, particularly the placement of the dative participial phrase `ἐξελθόντι δὲ αὐτῷ ἐπὶ τὴν γῆν` before the…
An Exegetical Analysis of Aramaic Influence in Luke 13:2, 4 and Lukan Semitic Style This exegetical study of Aramaic Influence in Luke 13:2, 4 is based on a b-greek discussion from Fri May 14 16:38:04 EDT 1999. The initial contribution highlighted Luke 13:2, 4 as an instance of Aramaic influence on the Greek text. The…
This exegetical study of An Exegetical Analysis of μενοῦν in Luke 11:28 is based on a b-greek discussion from Wed May 5 12:44:17 EDT 1999. The initial query concerned the translation of the Greek particle μενοῦν in Luke 11:28. The standard English translation “Blessed *rather* are those who hear the word of God and keep…
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος
This is always translated as “In the beginning”, but from the little I
understand of Greek grammar, one shouldn’t append the definite article in
English if the article is absent in Greek.
Is this “hyer-literal” translation accurate:
“In origin was the Word”
http://catholic-resources.org/John/Outl … ologue.htm
ὅτι ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὁ διάβολος ἁμαρτάνει
“For the devil sins from the beginning.”
The devil has an article, in both Greek and English, but again, beginning
has none.
Apologies for a simplistic question, I’m only two words into the text and
I’m confused.
Can someone clear this up for me?
Danny Diskin
Statistics: Posted by Danny Diskin — April 14th, 2014, 10:40 pm
S Walch wrote: ↑November 23rd, 2017, 6:33 amGood quick rundown there, Stirling. Just a few quick mistakes for you to rectify:Rev 10:1: you’ve not bolded the definite articles before κεφαλὴν/ςRev 11:3: In SBLG you’ve bolded προφητεύσουσιν instead of πε…
Stephen Hughes wrote: ↑October 24th, 2017, 11:29 amJonathan Robie wrote: ↑October 24th, 2017, 6:01 amI don’t want this to get lost – Timothy is correct here, and this is the one direct response to the question in the OP.ταυτη is not referring back to …
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