I am so confused about this sentence in Acts of John 98: καὶ τὸν πεπηγμένον ἐξ ἀνεδράστων ἀνάγγη βιάβα καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας·so, ἀνάγγη, is the verb (aor.pass.ind.) and βιάβα might be predicative to the implicit subject of ἀνάγγη. What I don’t get is τὸν…
Our personal beliefs about God do not come to bear on understanding whether or not the language here is being used in a manner consistent with the worldview of the author. It is something that we expect to ask of any author, and it is not a religious …
You have two examples of the “but instead” meaning in the Psalm quote. I would say that neither appear to use an emphatic negative. And my post was an argument for *not* reading Luke 12:51 with this “but instead” translation. I suggest looking through…
καὶ τοὺς ἐχθρούς μου ἔδωκάς μοι νῶτον καὶ τοὺς μισοῦντάς με ἐξωλόθρευσας. -Ps. 17.41Here ἔδωκάς seems to take two accusative objects (ἐχθρούς, νῶτον) along with the dative indirect object (μοι) . How should this be understood?Statistics: Posted by C…
I had a very similar thought to mwh about its unintelligibility, and was casually trying to figure it out during the sermon at church this morning, having looked up the context on TLG just before. There appears to be a divine voice of some kind talkin…
ἀλλʼ ἤ seems to mean “but rather” in those verses. IMO, that would make ἤ here somewhat similar to the LSJ A.I.3 “or else, otherwise”, although not quite the same thing.How do the English bibles translate these verses?Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — …
τῆς Μήδων πόλεωςΜήδων is genitive plural, “city of the Medes.” Not “Mede-city.”Statistics: Posted by Chris Weimer — Sat Mar 30, 2024 2:54 am
Might also simply be ungrammatical Greek e.g. the translator seems to be rigidly following the word order of the Hebrew here, see https://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/18-40.htmStatistics: Posted by Mitch — Sat Feb 01, 2025 5:41 pm
Many thanks Michael. It will never cease to amaze me how thoroughly horrible certain canonised individuals are in their writings… One would, perhaps naively, like to think that politeness would be a prerequisite for sainthood. Your comments are very…
καὶ τοὺς ἐχθρούς μου ἔδωκάς μοι νῶτον καὶ τοὺς μισοῦντάς με ἐξωλόθρευσας. -Ps. 17.41Here ἔδωκάς seems to take two accusative objects (ἐχθρούς, νῶτον) along with the dative indirect object (μοι) . How should this be understood?Statistics: Posted by C…
Thanks for that. I need to have more thinking. Would you suggest that it could mean “force” the way some translations render it?I should clarify my argument; I’m not suggesting it is “more accurate” translation. It is prophetic language after all. I…
The Septuagint’s occasional use of apparent indicative is a different phenomenon.And apparently here too, as Acts 7:7 turns the Septuagint’s ᾧ ἐὰν δουλεύσωσιν into indicative “δουλεύσουσιν”.Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Mon Sep 30, 2024 11:25 pm
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AdditionAlfred SchmollerHandkonkordanz zum griechischen Neuen Testament (14th ed 1968)https://www.abebooks.co.uk/servlet/Sear … danz&sts=tStatistics: Posted by Jean Putmans — Sat Aug 17, 2024 2:19 pm
Greetings! I’m here to call upon the collective wisdom of this forum regarding a particularly tricky (at least for me) passage in one of Gregory Palamas’ Antirrhetikoi against Gregory Akindynos. I’ll drop the entire passage below, along with my attemp…
The Greek parallel that comes to mind for me is: “καὶ κατὰ γῆν καὶ κατὰ θάλατταν”. But the double-καί is necessary there.I see that when quoting these verses, many of the Greek writers like to drop the second ἀνὰ μέσον.For example, the non-Semitic Jul…
ἀλλʼ ἤ seems to mean “but rather” in those verses. IMO, that would make ἤ here somewhat similar to the LSJ A.I.3 “or else, otherwise”, although not quite the same thing.How do the English bibles translate these verses?Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — …
No wonder you’re confused. It’s completely unintelligible as it stands, and the Greek must be very wrong. The best I can make of it is τῶν (not τὸν) πεπηγμένων (not -νον) ἐξ ἀνεδράστων(?) ἀναγωγὴ(?) βιαία(?) καὶ ἁρμονία σοφίας. That will mean somethin…
I think νῶτον acc. of respect to the enemies. “You’ve delivered my enemies to me in their rear and you have destroyed the ones hating me.”Statistics: Posted by jeidsath — Sat Feb 01, 2025 5:32 pm
I take it that he’s deploring φθόνος among his addressees. This fits with his inveighing against their internal dissensions (4.1 πόθεν πόλεμοι και πόθεν μάχαι εν ὑμιν; etc., 2 ζηλοῦτε etc., cf. 3.14 ει δε ζῆλον …) and with the rest of the letter. ζῆ…
It helps to have a bit of context. But it seems to me most likely that βιάβα represents βιαία as I suggested, and τὸν πεπηγμένον the genitive plural. Then the requisite changes are minimal. ἀνάγκη is the obvious guess for ἀνάγγη but doesn’t account fo…