61 articles Matthew Page 2 / 4

Matthew 11:28

Matthew 11:28: Behold, a drunkard?

Matt 11:28-30 chiasm or parallelism? Steve Long steve at allegrographics.com Mon May 17 13:44:55 EDT 1999   Luke 13.2,4 (was Re: aramaic influence) Luke’s Semitic Style Is there a chiasm or parallelism happening here?DEUTE PROS ME PANTES OI KOPIONTES KAI PEFORTISMENOI KAGW ANAPAUSW UMASARATE TON ZUGON MOU EF UMAS KAI MAQETE AP EMOUOTI PRAUS EIMI…

Mattew 28:17

Matt 28 17 Some Or All Doubted

Matt 28:17 some or all doubted? Tim Duke tduke at accsoft.com.au Mon Jul 19 08:54:31 EDT 1999   Greek/Hebrew and Bibliographic Programs John 1.3 “KAI IDONTES AUTON PROSEKUNHSAN, hOI DE EDISTASAN.”ought the hOI DE in Matt 28:17 be translated ‘some’, or does it refercollectively to the whole group?I can find no parallel instance where such…

Matthew 8:16

Matthew 8:16

[] meaning of DAIMONIZOMENOS Morgan Powell mrpowell at tpg.com.au Wed May 5 09:01:37 EDT 2004 meaning of DAIMONIZOMENOS In verses such as Matthew 4:24, Matthew 8:16, Matthew 8:28, Matthew 8:33 and others, the participleDAIMONIZOMENOS is usually translated as demon-possessed (or sometimesdemoniac as in NASB). Is there any justification for translating the wordas demon-possessed. Could not…

Matthew 23:10

Mt 23 10

mt 23:10 jim west jwest at Highland.Net Tue Oct 26 11:02:55 EDT 1999 Off-Topic: Moscow Mt 23:10 In the Hebrew NT I happen to have the greek term kaqhghths is translated’moreh’ here. It sets me to pondering, is it possible that the author ishere suggesting that the leader of the Qumran community, like the “rabbis”and…

Matthew 23:9

Matt 23 9b …. For One Is Your Heavenly Father

[] Matt 23:9b …. for One is your Heavenly Father Jay Adkins jayadkins264 at gmail.com Sat May 8 05:20:35 EDT 2010 [] οὔτις ἔσθ’ ὃς οὔ S.Ajax 725 & Jn 1:3 [] Matt 23:9b …. for One is your Heavenly Father Can some please explain to me why most English translations translate Matt23:9b as they…

Matthew 12:6

IOKOBOS To JAMES

Matthew 12:6 Mark Wilson emory2oo2 at hotmail.com Fri Aug 2 23:54:06 EDT 2002   Neofiti 1, OFFLIST response requested IOKOBOS to JAMES LEGW DE hUMIN hOTI TOU hIEROU MEIZON ESTIN hWDEI tell you that something greater than the temple is here.Can someone help me understand this comment I read ina commentary on MEIZON:”If we take…

Matthew 24:14

New Testament • Re: Greek words rendered as “end” at Mt 24:14; 28:20
Vladislav Kotenko wrote:
Hello,

Could anyone please tell me whether there is a difference between Greek words τέλος (tel’-os) and συντελείας (soon-tel’-i-ah) used at Matthew 24:14 and 28:20 respectively? Can they refer to the same thing? Do they have the same derivation?

Kind regards,
Vlad Kotenko

If you are asking whether τὸ τέλος and ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος in Matthew 24:14 and 28:20 respectively refer to the same point of time prophetically, the simple answer is yes. τὸ τέλος and ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος are used interchangeably in vv. 3, 6 and 14 in Matthew 24. Since ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος has a uniform meaning throughout the New Testament, we have the equation τὸ τέλος in Matthew 24:14 = ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος in Matthew 28:20.

However, τέλος in the NT is not always identical with ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος , even in a prophetic context. Mt. 24:13-14 reads

13ὁ δὲ ὑπομείνας εἰς τέλος οὗτος σωθήσεται. 14καὶ κηρυχθήσεται τοῦτο τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τῆς βασιλείας ἐν ὅλῃ τῇ οἰκουμένῃ εἰς μαρτύριον πᾶσιν τοῖς ἔθνεσιν, καὶ τότε ἥξει τὸ τέλος.

The second τέλος is the equivalent of ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος but the first τέλος is not. It rather refers to the end of the earthly life of each believer (cf. John 13:1: Πρὸ δὲ τῆς ἑορτῆς τοῦ πάσχα εἰδὼς ὁ Ἰησοῦς ὅτι ἦλθεν αὐτοῦ ἡ ὥρα ἵνα μεταβῇ ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου τούτου πρὸς τὸν πατέρα, ἀγαπήσας τοὺς ἰδίους τοὺς ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ εἰς τέλος ἠγάπησεν αὐτούς, where τέλος refers to the end of Jesus’ earthly life).

Statistics: Posted by leonardjayawardena — July 7th, 2014, 12:48 am


Matthew 1:18

New Testament • Re: article on μητρὸς in Mat 1.18
Doug Dinnsen wrote:
τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ Μαρίας in Mat 1.18

Since Mary was just mentioned in verse 16, the article here could be understood as an article of previous reference, “His [previously-mentioned] mother Mary”.

Wouldn’t that argument work better if Μαρίας had the article rather than μητρός?

Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — September 9th, 2016, 11:15 pm


Matthew 26:18

New Testament • Re: Matt. 26:18 – πρὸς σὲ and μετὰ τῶν μαθητῶν μου

Stephen Hughs wrote:

Is there enough in the πρός for us to know who was supplying the food? Is it more accurately: “I’ll be joining you for Pascha with my disciples.” or
“I’ll need a room at your place to hold Pascha with my disciples.”

I think it means “You will prepare the food, serve the tables and clean up afterward.”

Seriously though, I don’t think there is any particular indication though I don’t think Tupperware had yet been invented so I doubt that a pot luck dinner was envisioned. Probably the host would prepare the meal as well as providing the facilities for the dinner, but that isn’t something you’re going to get from the language of the passage

Statistics: Posted by George F Somsel — January 18th, 2014, 12:22 pm


Matthew 12:40

New Testament • Matthew 12:40

Just wondering if Matthew 12:40 (ὥσπερ γὰρ ἦν Ἰωνᾶς ἐν τῇ κοιλίᾳ τοῦ κήτους τρεῖς ἡμέρας καὶ τρεῖς νύκτας, οὕτως ἔσται ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ τῆς γῆς τρεῖς ἡμέρας καὶ τρεῖς νύκτας) could be translated this way:

For the Son of Man will be in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights for the same reason that Jonah was in the belly of the fish for three days and three nights.

Jeffrey

Statistics: Posted by jgibson000 — June 22nd, 2017, 4:36 pm


Matthew 1:22

New Testament • Re: Matt 1:22 τοῦτο δὲ ὅλον γέγονεν, in whose voice?

Thank you, Dr. Carlson. I thought that may have been what you were meaning. I did not notice the “point of departure” in the first example. It is worse when I admit I was reading Levinsohn prior to making that post. :oops:

Dr. Conrad, your post contained some information that I need to investigate. Thank you.

Statistics: Posted by Wes Wood — January 29th, 2014, 8:31 am


Matthew 12:4

New Testament • Re: Mt 12:4 Construction of the relative ὃ
cwconrad wrote:
Just to update my current state of thinking/confusion about this text:

πῶς εἰσῆλθεν εἰς τὸν οἶκον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ τοὺς ἄρτους τῆς προθέσεως ἔφαγον, οὐκ ἐξὸν ἦν αὐτῷ φαγεῖν οὐδὲ τοῖς μετ᾿ αὐτοῦ εἰ μὴ τοῖς ἱερεῦσιν μόνοις;

Would the construction be better if the φαγεῖν were omitted?

Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — January 8th, 2014, 3:27 pm


Matthew 3:2

Matthew 3:2

/////////////////////////////////////////// New Testament Re: Matt 3:2 μετανοεῖτε Posted: 19 Sep 2012 12:32 AM PDT http://feedproxy.google.com/~r//~3/EPIwiZm5heM/viewtopic.php?utm_source=feedburner&utm_medium=email Scott, Let me try to distinguish some concepts. Most linguists today adopt a bidimensional aspectual system that distinguishes “aspect” (a.k.a. grammatical aspect or “viewpoint” aspect) and “Aktionsart” (a.k.a. lexical aspect or “situation type” [Carlota Smith] or “procedural characteristics” [Buist Fanning]).…