The Transliteration of Γολγοθα: An Exegetical Inquiry into Vowel Variation This exegetical study of ‘γολγοθα with ο or with α?’ is based on a b-greek discussion from Thu Jul 1 04:41:03 EDT 1999. The initial inquiry observed that while Greek editions and various European Bible translations (English, French, Dutch, and German Catholic) typically present the…
The following academic exegesis addresses the nuanced semantic range and historical evolution of the Greek term πάσχα (pascha), particularly its application to both the Jewish Passover and the Christian Feast of the Resurrection (Easter). The Term πάσχα: Equivalence with Passover and Easter in Christian Tradition This exegetical study of The Term πάσχα: Equivalence with Passover…
An Exegetical Analysis of Matthew 21:31 and the Idiom “Giving Glory to God” body { font-family: ‘Times New Roman’, serif; line-height: 1.6; margin: 2em; } h1, h2, h3 { color: #333; } b { font-weight: bold; } i { font-style: italic; } blockquote { border-left: 5px solid #ccc; margin: 1.5em 0; padding: 0.5em 1em; background-color:…
“`html An Exegetical Study of Matthew 16:19: The Periphrastic Future Perfect body { font-family: ‘Palatino Linotype’, Palatino, Georgia, serif; line-height: 1.6; margin: 2em; max-width: 900px; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; } h1, h2, h3 { font-family: ‘Trajan Pro’, serif; color: #333; margin-top: 1.5em; margin-bottom: 0.8em; } h2 { font-size: 1.8em; border-bottom: 1px solid #ccc; padding-bottom: 0.3em;…
An Exegetical Study of Matthew 28:1a: The Interpretation of ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων This exegetical study of Matthew 28:1 Interpretation is based on a b-greek discussion from Thu Jan 3 01:24:15 2002. The initial inquiry focused on the interpretive challenge presented by the phrase ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων in Matthew 28:1a, specifically the interaction between the adverb…
An Exegetical Analysis of Matthew 28:17: The Interpretation of οἱ δέ This exegetical study of ‘hOI for some in Mt 28:17?’ is based on a b-greek discussion from Sun May 19 23:04:56 EDT 2002. The initial inquiry focused on the grammatical reasons for translating `οἱ δέ` as “some” rather than “they” in Matthew 28:17, particularly…
“`html The Semantics of Doubt: An Exegesis of Matthew 28:17 body { font-family: sans-serif; line-height: 1.6; } h1, h2, h3, h4 { color: #333; } b { font-weight: bold; } i { font-style: italic; } blockquote { border-left: 5px solid #ccc; margin: 1.5em 10px; padding: 0.5em 10px; } ul { list-style-type: disc; margin-left: 20px; }…
An Exegetical Analysis of the Subjunctive Moods in Matthew 16:28 This exegetical study of “Subjunctive in Mt. 16:28” is based on a b-greek discussion from Sat Sep 19 02:01:58 EDT 1998. The initial inquiry focused on the grammatical expectation of the indicative mood for the verb γεύομαι (geuomai) in Matthew 16:28, contrasted with its actual…
An Exegetical Analysis of δαιμονιζομενοσ in Matthew: Lexical Meaning and Participant Reference This exegetical study of An Exegetical Analysis of δαιμονιζομενοσ in Matthew: Lexical Meaning and Participant Reference is based on a b-greek discussion from Wed May 5 09:01:37 EDT 2004. The initial query concerned the translation of the Greek participle δαιμονιζομενοσ as found in…
An Exegetical Examination of Καθηγητής in Matthew 23:10 This exegetical study of Matthew 23:10 is based on a b-greek discussion from Tuesday, October 26, 1999. The initial query probes the translation of the Greek term καθηγητής in a Hebrew New Testament as ‘moreh’ and speculates on the Gospel author’s intent to counter the authority of…
“`html An Exegetical Examination of Matthew 1:23 and Isaiah 7:14 LXX: The Verbal Forms of καλεῖν body { font-family: ‘Palatino Linotype’, ‘Book Antiqua’, Palatino, serif; line-height: 1.6; margin: 20px; } h1, h2, h3 { color: #333; } h2 { border-bottom: 1px solid #ccc; padding-bottom: 5px; margin-top: 30px; } h3 { color: #555; margin-top: 20px; }…
Shirley Rollinson wrote: ↑January 5th, 2018, 8:55 pmIn Matthew 14:25 Jesus walks ἐπὶ τὴν θάλασσαν – but in the next verse the disciples see him walking ἐπὶ τῆς θαλάσσης – could it be that in the first instance the thought is that he is walking ‘toward…
Vladislav Kotenko wrote:
Hello,Could anyone please tell me whether there is a difference between Greek words τέλος (tel’-os) and συντελείας (soon-tel’-i-ah) used at Matthew 24:14 and 28:20 respectively? Can they refer to the same thing? Do they have the same derivation?
Kind regards,
Vlad Kotenko
If you are asking whether τὸ τέλος and ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος in Matthew 24:14 and 28:20 respectively refer to the same point of time prophetically, the simple answer is yes. τὸ τέλος and ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος are used interchangeably in vv. 3, 6 and 14 in Matthew 24. Since ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος has a uniform meaning throughout the New Testament, we have the equation τὸ τέλος in Matthew 24:14 = ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος in Matthew 28:20.
However, τέλος in the NT is not always identical with ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος , even in a prophetic context. Mt. 24:13-14 reads
13ὁ δὲ ὑπομείνας εἰς τέλος οὗτος σωθήσεται. 14καὶ κηρυχθήσεται τοῦτο τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τῆς βασιλείας ἐν ὅλῃ τῇ οἰκουμένῃ εἰς μαρτύριον πᾶσιν τοῖς ἔθνεσιν, καὶ τότε ἥξει τὸ τέλος.
The second τέλος is the equivalent of ἡ συντελεία τοῦ αἰῶνος but the first τέλος is not. It rather refers to the end of the earthly life of each believer (cf. John 13:1: Πρὸ δὲ τῆς ἑορτῆς τοῦ πάσχα εἰδὼς ὁ Ἰησοῦς ὅτι ἦλθεν αὐτοῦ ἡ ὥρα ἵνα μεταβῇ ἐκ τοῦ κόσμου τούτου πρὸς τὸν πατέρα, ἀγαπήσας τοὺς ἰδίους τοὺς ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ εἰς τέλος ἠγάπησεν αὐτούς, where τέλος refers to the end of Jesus’ earthly life).
Statistics: Posted by leonardjayawardena — July 7th, 2014, 12:48 am
Doug Dinnsen wrote:
τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ Μαρίας in Mat 1.18Since Mary was just mentioned in verse 16, the article here could be understood as an article of previous reference, “His [previously-mentioned] mother Mary”.
Wouldn’t that argument work better if Μαρίας had the article rather than μητρός?
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — September 9th, 2016, 11:15 pm
Interesting enough, but in the context of a discussion on word order, Pennington doesn’t explicitly state which verb the “intervening” indirect object goes with. Either Herod made some grand statement to all around him, “By Jove, mark my words, I wil…
Stephen Hughs wrote:
Is there enough in the πρός for us to know who was supplying the food? Is it more accurately: “I’ll be joining you for Pascha with my disciples.” or
“I’ll need a room at your place to hold Pascha with my disciples.”
I think it means “You will prepare the food, serve the tables and clean up afterward.”
Seriously though, I don’t think there is any particular indication though I don’t think Tupperware had yet been invented so I doubt that a pot luck dinner was envisioned. Probably the host would prepare the meal as well as providing the facilities for the dinner, but that isn’t something you’re going to get from the language of the passage
Statistics: Posted by George F Somsel — January 18th, 2014, 12:22 pm
Just wondering if Matthew 12:40 (ὥσπερ γὰρ ἦν Ἰωνᾶς ἐν τῇ κοιλίᾳ τοῦ κήτους τρεῖς ἡμέρας καὶ τρεῖς νύκτας, οὕτως ἔσται ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ τῆς γῆς τρεῖς ἡμέρας καὶ τρεῖς νύκτας) could be translated this way:
For the Son of Man will be in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights for the same reason that Jonah was in the belly of the fish for three days and three nights.
Jeffrey
Statistics: Posted by jgibson000 — June 22nd, 2017, 4:36 pm
Thank you, Dr. Carlson. I thought that may have been what you were meaning. I did not notice the “point of departure” in the first example. It is worse when I admit I was reading Levinsohn prior to making that post. 
Dr. Conrad, your post contained some information that I need to investigate. Thank you.
Statistics: Posted by Wes Wood — January 29th, 2014, 8:31 am
cwconrad wrote:
Just to update my current state of thinking/confusion about this text:πῶς εἰσῆλθεν εἰς τὸν οἶκον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ τοὺς ἄρτους τῆς προθέσεως ἔφαγον, ὃ οὐκ ἐξὸν ἦν αὐτῷ φαγεῖν οὐδὲ τοῖς μετ᾿ αὐτοῦ εἰ μὴ τοῖς ἱερεῦσιν μόνοις;
Would the construction be better if the φαγεῖν were omitted?
Statistics: Posted by Stephen Carlson — January 8th, 2014, 3:27 pm
Shirley, it’s not a modern re-write but following the Byzantine text rather than the Alexandrian text. N-A, of course, promulgates the Alexandrian text-type. Maurice Robinson, IIRC, thinks that the Alexandrian text type may have been an ancient schola…
